(a) Pharmacologic antagonist
(b) Partial agonist
(c) Physiologic antagonist
(d) Chemical antagonist
(e) Noncompetitive antagonist
2. If therapy with multiple drugs causes induction of drug metabolism in your asthma patient, it will
(a) Result in increased smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Result in increased rough endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Result in decreased enzymes in the soluble cytoplasmic fraction
(d) Require 34 months to reach completion
(e) Be irreversible
3. The Symptoms of allergenmediated asthma result from which of the following?
(a) Increased release of mediators from mast cells
(b) Increased adrenergic responsiveness of the airways
(c) Increased vascular permeability of bronchial tissue
(d) Decreased calcium influx into the mast cells
(e) Decreased prostaglandin production
4. Which of the following will result from blockade of H2 receptors?
(a) Decreased camp in cardiac muscle
(b) Increased camp in cardiac muscle
(c) Decreased IP3 in gastric mucosa
(d) Increased IP3 in gastric mucosa
(e) Increased IP3 in smooth muscle
5. Toxicities of H2 antihistamines include which one of the following?
(a) Blurred vision
(b) Diarrhea
(c) Orthostatic hypotension
(d) P450 inhibition
(e) Sleepiness
6. A patient undergoing cancer chemotherapy is vomiting frequently. A drug that might help in this situation is
(a) Bromocriptine
(b) Cimetidine
(c) Ketanserin
(d) Loratadine
(e) Ondansetron
7. Which of the following is most useful in the treatment of hyperprolactinemia ?
(a) Bromocriptine
(b) Cimetidine
(c) Ergotamine
(d) Ketanserin
(e) LSD
8. Drugs that can dilate bronchi during an acute asthmatic attack include all of the following except
(a) Epinephrine
(b) Terbutaline
(c) Nedocromil
(d) Theophyline
(e) Ipratropium
9. Which of the following is a nonselective but very potent and efficacious bonchodilator that is not active by the oral route?
(a) Aminophyline
(b) Cromolyn
(c) Epinephrine
(d) Ipratropium
(e) Metaproterenol
10. Which of the following is a prophylactic agent that appears to stabilize mast cells?
(a) Aminophyline
(b) Cromolyn
(c) Epinephrine
(d) Ipratropium
(e) Metaproterenol
11. Which of the following is a direct bronchodilator that is most often used in asthma by the oral route?
(a) Aminophyline
(b) Cromolyn
(c) Epinephrine
(d) Ipratropium
(e) Metaproterenol
12. Acute exacerbations of asthma can be triggered by all of the following except
(a) Bacterial of viral pneumonia
(b) Hypertsensitivity reaction to penicillin
(c) Discontinuation of asthma medication
(d) Hot, dry weather
(e) Stressful emotional events
13. Which of the following has overdose toxicity that includes insomnia, arrhythmias, and convulsions?
(a) Aminophyline
(b) Cromolyn
(c) Epinephrine
(d) Ipratropium
(e) Metaproterenol
14. Which of the following is a very longacting ß2 – selective agonist that is used for asthma prophylaxis?
(a) Aminophyline
(b) Cromolyn
(c) Epinephrine
(d) Ipratropium
(e) Salmeterol
15. Which one of the following drugs is most suitable for management of essential tremor in a patient who has pulmonary disease?
(a) Diazepam
(b) Levodopa
(c) Metoprolol
(d) Propranolol
(e) Terbutaline
16. A drug useful in the treatment of asthma but lacking bronchodilator action, is
(a) Cromolyn
(b) Ephedrine
(c) Isoproterenol
(d) Metaproterenol
(e) Metoprolol
17. Relative to fexofenadine, diphenhydramine is more likely to
(a) Be used for treatment of asthma
(b) Be used for treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease
(c) Cause cardiac arrhythmias in overdose
(d) Have efficacy in the prevention of motion sickness
(e) Increase the serum concentration of warfarin
18. Bacteria that make either a fementative or respiratory set of enzymes are known as
(a) Obligate anacerobes
(b) Obligate aerobes
(c) Microacerophiles
(d) Facultative organisms
19. The symptoms of allergenmediated asthma result from which of the following?
(a) Increased release of mediators from mast cells
(b) Increased adrenergic responsiveness of the airways
(c) Inceased vascular permeability of bronchial tissue
(d) Decreased calcium influx into the mast cell
(e) Decreased prostaglandin production
20. Acute exacerbations of asthma can be triggered by all of the following except
(a) Bacterial or viral pneumonia
(b) Hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin
(c) Discontinuation of asthma medication
(d) Hot, dry weather
(e) Stressful emotional events
21. In the emergency department, the preferred firstline therapy for asthma exacerbation is
(a) Theophyline
(b) A ßagonist
(c) A corticosteroid
(d) Cromolyn sodium
(e) An antihistamine
22. Which of the following tests is used at home to assess therapy and determine if a patient with asthma
should seek emergency care?
(a) Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1)
(b) Forced vital capacity (FVC)
(c) Total lung capacity (TLC)
(d) Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR)
(e) Residual volume (RV)
23. Which of the following agents and dosage regimens is the best choice of treatment for an asthma patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is considered sensitive to aspirin (experiences bronchospasm with use)?
(a) Lbuprofen, 800 mg three times daily
(b) Acetaminophen, 650 mg every 4 hours
(c) Gold injections, 25 mg intramuscularly once a week
(d) Azathioprine, 75 mg daily
(e) Cyclophosphamide, 100 mg daily
24. A drug administered by inhalation of powder as a prophylactic for asthma is
(a) Ephedrine
(b) Disodium cromolyn
(c) Isoproterenol
(d) Ocytriphylline
(e) Epinephrine
25. Which of the following may precipitate an asthma attack?
(a) Respiratory acidosis
(b) Viran and bacterial infections
(c) Respiratory alkalosis
(d) Cranberry jiuce
(e) Chocolate or Coca Cola
26. Terbutaline has a preference for stimulation of which of the following receptors?
(a) Alpha
(b) Gamma
(c) Beta 1
(d) Beta 2
(e) Dopaminergic
27. The National Institutes of Health (NIH) guidelines for the treatment of asthma recommended institution of routine inhaled corticosteroids when patients are classified as having greater than or equal to which type of asthma?
(a) Mild intermittent
(b) Mild persistent
(c) Moderate persistent
(d) Severe persistent
28. Isoxuprine is used to treat
(a) Asthma
(b) Severe hypotension
(c) Nasal congestion
(d) Premature labor
(e) Hypertension
29. The most likely complication of prolonged use of nasal decongestant drops is
(a) Atrophic rhinitis
(b) Hypertrophy of nasal mucosa
(c) Naso-pharyngeal moniliasis
(d) Blockage of Eustachian tubes
30. Which of the following is a selective H1 receptor agoinist ?
(a) 4-methyl histamine
(b) Impromidine
(c) 2-Thiazolyl ethylamine
(d) Mepyramine
31. Fall in blood pressure caused by larger doses of histamine is blocked by
(a) H1 antihistaminics alone
(b) H2 ANTAgonists alone
(c) Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists
(d) None of the above
32. Histamine is involved as a mediator in the following pathological conditon
(a) Cocaine
(b) Dibucaine
(c) Lidocaine
(d) Procaine
33. In the emergency department, the preferred first-line therapy for asthma exacerbation is
(a) Theophylline
(b) A ß-agonist
(c) A corticosteroid
(d) Cromolyn sodium
(e) An antihistamine
34. The capacity of an antihistaminic to produce sedation depends on the following except
(a) Relative affinity for central versus peripheral H1 receptors
(b) Ability to penetrate blood-brain barrier
(c) Individual susceptibility
(d) Ratio of H1 : H2 blockade produced by the drug
35. While prescribing the conventional H1 antihistaminics the patient should be advised to avoid
(a) Driving motor vehicles
(b) Consuming processed cheese
(c) Strenuous physical exertion
(d) All of the above
36. The antihistaminc which has calcium channel blocking and labyrinthine suppressant property is
(a) Cyproheptadine
(b) Cinnarizine
(c) Clemastine
(d) Cetirizine
37. Erythromycin should not be given to patient being treated with terfenadine because
(a) Erythromycin induces the metabolism of terfenadine
(b) Dangerous ventricular arrhythmias can occur
(c) Terfenadine inhibits metabolism of erythromycin
(d) Terfenadine antagonizes the antimicrobal action of erythromycin
38. Select the H1 antihistaminic which is used topically in the nose for allergic rhinitis
(a) Deep intra-abdominal operation
(b) Trachial intubation
(c) Tetanus
(d) Diagonosis of myasthenia gravis
39. H1 antihistaminics are beneficial in
(a) All types of allergic disorders
(b) Certain type I allergic reactions only
(c) Anaphylactic shock(d) Bronchial asthma
40. The action of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine mediated by the 5-HT3 receptor is
(a) Vasoconstriction
(b) Bradycardia
(c) EDRF release
(d) Platelet aggregation
41. Tachyphylaxis to many actions on repeated injection is a feature of the following autocoid
(a) Histamine
(b) 5-Hydroxytryptamine
(c) Bradykinin
(d) Angiotensin
42. The smooth muscle stimulating action of 5-HT is most marked in the
(a) Bronchi
(b) Intestines
(c) Ureter
(d) Billary tract
43. The 5-HT antagonist that has antihypertensive property is
(a) Methysergide
(b) Cyproheptadine
(c) Ketanserin
(d) Ondansetron
44. The most important receptor involved in cytotoxic drug induced vomiting is
(a) Histamine H1 receptor
(b) Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor
(c) Dopamine D2 receptor
(d) Opioid µ receptor
45. Which of the following expectorants acts both directly on the airway mucosa as well as reflexly ?
(a) Potassium iodide
(b) Guaiphenesin
(c) Terpin hydrate
(d) Bromhexine
46. Bromhexine acts by
(a) Inhibiting cough center
(b) Irritating gastric mucosa and reflexly increasing bronchial secretion
(c) Depolymerizing mucopolysaccharides present
(d) Desensitizing stretch receptors in the lungs
47. The primary goals of asthma therapy include all of the following except
(a) maintain normal activity levels
(b) maintain control of symptoms
(c) avoid adverse effects of asthma medications
(d) prevent acute exacerbations and chronic symptoms
(e) prevent destruction of lung tissue
48. Antitussives act by
(a) Liquifying bronchial secretions
(b) Raising the threshold of cough centre
(c) Reducing cough inducing impulses from the lungs
(d) Both (b) and (c)
49. Which of the following antitussive is present in opium but has no analgesic or addicting properties ?
(a) Noscapine
(b) Codeine
(c) Pholcodeine
(d) Ethylmorphine
50. Bronchodilators are useful in cough
(a) Only when cough is non-productive
(b) Only when cough is associated with thick sticky secretions
(c) Only when reflex bronchoconstriction is associated
(d) Irrespective of nature of cough or associated features
51 The common and dose related side effect of salbutamol is
(a) Rise in blood pressure
(b) Muscle tremor
(c) Hyperglycaemia
(d) Central nervous system stimulation
52. Which of the following tests is used at home to assess therapy and determine if a patient with asthma should seek emergency care?
(a) Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1)
(b) Forced vital capacity (FVC)
(c) Total lung capacity (TLC)
(d) Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR)
(e) Residual volume (RV)
53. In a patient of bronchial asthma, inhaled salbutamol produces the following effect(s).
(a) Inhibits antigen-antibody reaction in the lungs
(b) Causes bronchodilatation
(c) Reduces bronchial hyperreactivity
(d) Both (b) and (c)
54. Select the correct statement about salmeterol.
(a) It is a long acting selective ß2 agonist bronchodilator
(b) It is a bronchodilator with anti-inflammatory property
(c) It is a ß blocker that can be safely given to asthmatics
(d) It is an antihistaminic with mast cells stabilizing property
55. Caffeine is more powerful than theophylline in exerting the following action
(a) Bronchodilatation
(b) Cardiac stimulation
(c) Diuresis
(d) Augmentation of skeletal muscle contractility
56. Methylxanthines exert the following action (s) at cellular/molecular level
(a) Intracellular release of Ca2+
(b) Antagonism of adenosine
(c) Inhibition of phosphodiesterase
(d) All of the above
57. Relatively higher dose of theophylline is required to attain therapeutics plasma concentration in
(a) Smokers
(b) Congestive heart failure patients
(c) Those receiving erythromycin
(d) Those receiving cimetidine
58. The antiasthma drug which cannot be administered by inhalation is
(a) Theophylline
(b) Ipratropium bromide
(c) Budesonide
(d) Terbutaline
59. A 10 year old child suffers from exercise induced asthma: Which is the most suitable first line drug for regular prophylactic therapy ?
(a) Oral salbutamol
(b) Oral theophylline
(c) Inhaled sodium cromoglycate
(d) Inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate
60. Which of the following drugs is neither bronchodilator nor anti-inflammatory, but has antihistaminic and mast cell stabilizing activity ?
(a) Sodium cromoglycate
(b) Ketotifen
(c) Beclomethasone dipropionate
(d) Mepyramine maleate
61. The most consistent, pronounced and sustained relief of symptoms in chronic bronchial asthma is afforded by
(a) ß2 sympathomimetics
(b) Anticholinergics
(c) Sodium cromoglycate
(d) Corticosteroids
62. Intransasal spray of budesonide is indicated in
(a) Common cold
(b) Acute vasomotor rhinitis
(c) Perennial vasomotor rhinitis
(d) Epistaxis
63. In patients of bronchial asthma inhaled corticosteroids achieve the following except
(a) Reduce the need for bronchodilator medication
(b) Control an attack of refractory asthma
(c) Reduce bronchial hyperreactivity
(d) Reverse diminished responsiveness to sympathomimetic bronchodilators
64. Budesonide is a
(a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug
(b) High ceiling diuretic
(c) Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma
(d) Contraceptive
65. In an asthma patient treated with systemic corticosteroids, bronchodilator drugs
(a) Are not needed
(b) Are contraindicated
(c) May be used on ‘as and when required’ basis
(d) Are ineffective
66. To be a useful inhaled glucocorticoid the drug should have
(a) High oral bioavailability
(b) Low oral bioavailability
(c) Additional bronchodilator activity
(d) Prodrug character
67. Histamine
(a) May be released from mast cells by a number of therapeutic agents
(b) Causes sedation
(c) Decreases the force of contraction of ventricular muscle
(d) Can cause strong contractions of the gravid human uterus
68. Chronic Bronchitis is characterized by
I. the distruction of central and peripheral portions of the acinus
II. an increased number of mucous glands and goblet cells
III. edema and inflammation of the bronchioles
(a) only I is correct
(b) only III is correct
(c) I and II are correct
(d) II and III are correct
(e) I, II and III are correct
69. Smooth muscle relaxation is due to stimulation of which type of histamine receptors
(a) H1
(b) H2
(c) H3
(d) All of the above
70. All the following are employed in inhalation therapy of asthma except
(a) Beclomethasone
(b) Budesonide
(c) Dexamethasone
(d) Triamcinolone
71. Which xanthine derivative has no function in asthma ?
(a) Theophylline
(b) Pentoxyphyllin
(c) Enprofylin
(d) None of the above
72. What is symport ?
(a) Counter transport
(b) Contransport
(c) Carrier mediated diffusion
(d) Solvent drug
73. Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that
(a) More potent orally
(b) Longer acting
(c) Less muscarinic side effects
(d) All of the above
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